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Monday, February 13, 2017

cat standards categories

The standards categories

CategoryMaximum data rateUsual application
CAT 1 (de facto name, never a standard)Up to 1 Mbps (1 MHz)analog voice (POTS)
Basic Rate Interface in ISDN
Doorbell wiring
CAT 2(de facto name, never a standard)4 MbpsMainly used in the IBM cabling system for Token Ring networks
CAT 316 MbpsVoice (analog most popular implementation)
10BASE-T Ethernet
CAT 420 MbpsUsed in 16 Mbps Token Ring, otherwise not used much. Was only a standard briefly and never widely installed.
CAT 5100 MHz100 Mbps TPDDI
155 Mbps ATM
No longer supported; replaced by 5E.
10/100BASE-T
4/16MBps Token Ring
Analog Voice
CAT 5E100 MHz100 Mbps TPDDI
155 Mbps ATM
Gigabit Ethernet
Offers better near-end crosstalk than CAT 5
CAT 6Up to 250 MHzMinimum cabling for data centers in TIA-942.
Quickly replacing category 5e.
CAT 6EMHz
 (field-tested to 500 MHz)
Support for 10 Gigabit Ethernet (10GBASE-T)
May be either shielded (STP, ScTP, S/FTP) or unshielded (UTP)
This standard published in Feb. 2008.
Minimum for Data Centers in ISO data center standard.
CAT 7
(ISO Class F)
600 MHz
1.2 GHz in pairs with Siemon connector
Full-motion video
Teleradiology
Government and manufacturing environments
Fully Shielded (S/FTP) system using non-RJ45 connectors but backwards compatible with hybrid cords.
Until February 2008, the only standard (published in 2002) to support 10GBASE-T for a full 100m.

IEEE Ethernet standards

IEEE Ethernet standards


Ethernet is defined in a number of IEEE (Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers) 802.3 standards. These standards define the physical and data-link layer specifications for Ethernet. The most important 802.3 standards are:
·         10Base-T (IEEE 802.3) – 10 Mbps with category 3 unshielded twisted pair (UTP) wiring, up to 100 meters long.
·         100Base-TX (IEEE 802.3u) – known as Fast Ethernet, uses category 5, 5E, or 6 UTP wiring, up to 100 meters long.
·         100Base-FX (IEEE 802.3u) – a version of Fast Ethernet that uses multi-mode optical fiber. Up to 412 meters long.
·         1000Base-CX (IEEE 802.3z) – uses copper twisted-pair cabling. Up to 25 meters long.
·         1000Base-T (IEEE 802.3ab) – Gigabit Ethernet that uses Category 5 UTP wiring. Up to 100 meters long.
·         1000Base-SX (IEEE 802.3z) – 1 Gigabit Ethernet running over multimode fiber-optic cable.
·         1000Base-LX (IEEE 802.3z) – 1 Gigabit Ethernet running over single-mode fiber.
·         10GBase-T (802.3.an) – 10 Gbps connections over category 5e, 6, and 7 UTP cables.

Notice how the first number in the name of the standard represents the speed of the network in megabits per second. The word base refers to baseband, meaning that the signals are transmitted without modulation. The last part of the standard name refers to the cabling used to carry signals. For example, 1000Base-T means that the speed of the network is up to 1000 Mbps, baseband signaling is used, and the twisted-pair cabling will be used (T stands for twisted-pair).


Saturday, May 9, 2015

windows server 2012 multiple choice questions

      https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCQECTKWf3phX5McZIyPM0Mw/videos


1. Which terminology is being described below?
A ___ trust allows resources in your domain (the domain that you are logged on to at the time that you run the New Trust Wizard) to be accessed more quickly by users in another domain (which is nested within another domain tree) in your forest



a.       two-way, incoming, shortcut
b.      one-way, outgoing, shortcut
c.       two-way, incoming, forest
d.      one-way, outgoing, forest

2.       Which terminology is being described below?

Time synchronization is critical for the proper operation of many Windows services and line-of-business applications. The ___ uses the Network Time Protocol (NTP) to synchronize computer clocks on the network so that an accurate clock value, or time stamp, can be assigned to network validation requests and resource access requests


a.       Network Services Shell (Netsh)
b.      Windows Time service (W32time)
c.       Listsvc
d.      Fixmbr

3.     You have decided to install Windows Server 2012 by choosing the Service Core Installation option. If you want to install, configure or uninstall server roles remotely, what tool would you use?
a.     Windows PowerShell
b.     Any of these
c.      Server Manager
d.     Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT)
4.     Virtual Network Manager (available from the Hyper-V Manager snap-in) offers three types of virtual networks that you can use to define various networking topologies for virtual machines and the virtualization server.
Which type of virtual network is isolated from all external network traffic on the virtualization server, as well any network traffic between the management operating system and the external network?
a.     Internal virtual network
b.     Private virtual network
c.      External
d.     All of the above
5.     Which of the following features is available when Windows Server 2012 is installed using the GUI option but without the desktop experience feature installed?
a.     Metro-style Start screen
b.     Built-in help system
c.      All of these
d.     Windows Media Player
6.     Server manager is a great tool for managing most of your server settings and configuration all in one central place. Which one of the following Server manager Features is used for Storage management, replication and searching?
a.     Dynamic Host Configuration Server
b.     Terminal Services
c.      Domain Name Service
d.     File Services
7.     Server manager is a great tool for managing most of your server settings and configuration all in one central place. Which one of the following Server manager Features is used for management of Public Key Infrastructure?
a.     Dynamic Host Configuration Server
b.     WINS Server
c.      Domain Name Service
d.     Active Directory Certificate Services





8.     Your IT manager is concerned that someone is trying to gain access to your company's computers by logging on with valid domain user names and various password attempts. Which audit policy should you monitor for these activities?
a.     Policy Change
b.     Account Logon
c.      Privilege Use
d.     Directory Service Access

9.     Which terminology is being described below:

This trust is a manually created trust that shortens the trust path to improve the speed at which authentications, which occur between domain trees, are processed
a.     Quick Trust
b.     Simple Trust
c.      Easy Trust
d.     Shortcut Trust
10.                        Is the following statement about Hyper-V true or false?
Hyper-V does not support wireless networks
a.     True
b.     False
11.                        When you install Windows Server 2012, you can choose between Server Core Installation and Server with a GUI..
Which option would reduce the potential attack surface and servicing requirements?
a.     Server Core Installation
b.     Server with a GUI
c.      Itanium based
d.     None of the above

12.                        Managing Group Policy objects is a tiresome task. Which of the following Windows Server 2012 features could you use to save time when creating GPO’s with similar settings?
a.     UAC
b.     PXE boot
c.      IFM
d.     Starter GPO
13.                        RODC comes with a number of features that focus on heightened security with limited functionality to remote office users. Which of the following are features of RODC?
a.     Filtered Attribute Sets
b.     All of these
c.      Read-only DNS
d.     Unidirectional Replication
14.                        In Windows Server 2012, you can remove the Server Graphical Shell, resulting in the “Minimal Server Interface.” This is similar to a Server with a GUI installation except that some features are not installed.

Which of the following features is not installed in this scenario?
a.     MMC
b.     Windows Explorer
c.      Control Panel (subset)
d.     Server Manager
15.                        You have just finished installing Windows Server 2012 on a new server. Your colleague has informed you that its essential that you must activate Windows Server. Which of the following command line tools can be used to Activate Windows Server?
a.     Cscript C:\windows\system32\slmgr.vbs –ato
b.     Netdom C:\windows\system32\slmgr.vbs –ato
c.      Ocsetup C:\windows\system32\slmgr.vbs –ato
d.    Netsh C:\windows\system32\slmgr.vbs –ato


16.    An IPv4 address consists of _______ bits.
a.     4
b.    8
c.     32
d.    64

17.    The number of addresses in a class C block is?
a.     10000
b.    12000
c.     256
d.    100

18.    Loopback address in IPV6?
a.     00:11
b.    ::1
c.     1
d.    127.0.0.1

19.    Which of the following data center type provide maximum uptime?
a.     Tier0
b.    Tier1
c.     Tier2
d.    Tier4

20.        Which RAID types use parity for data protection?
a. RAID 11
b. RAID 0
c. RAID 12
d. RAID 5

21.                       What is the minimum number of disks required for RAID1?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 5


22.                       Which statement(s) about IPv6 addresses are true?
a.     Leading zeroes are required
b.    Two colons (::) are used to represent successive hexadecimal fields of zeros.
c.     Two colons (::) are used to separate fields.
d.    None of the above

23.                       Which file system provides you quota and security?
a.    NTFS
b.    FST
c.     FAT
d.    FAT32

24.                       DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) provides _____ to the client.
a) IP address
b) MAC address
c) url
d) none of the mentioned

25.                       DHCP is used for
a) IPv6
b) IPv4
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned


26.                       Which of the following server is required to resolve Server name into IP and vice-versa?
a.     WDS
b.    DNS
c.     FTP
d.    IP SERVER

27.                       Which of the following disc type will be used for 10TB HDD drive?
a.     MBR
b.    GPT
c.     SSD
d.    SCSI

28.                       What must be installed before you install the DFS service on a server to create a domain based DFS namespace?

A.        WSUS
B.         File Services
C.        WSRM
D.        WDS

29.                       Which of the following local groups is added on a file server to enable a user at a remote site to take manual backups of a file server once a week to a removable USB 2.0 device, that will be then transported by courier to your organization’s head office location?

A.        Remote Desktop Users
B.         Administrators
C.        Backup Operators
D.        Power Users

30.                       Mukesh works in a company that has an AD DS forest that consists of a forest root domain plus five domains. He should create a group that contains 70 users who require access to resources in all six domains. All the user accounts are located in the forest root domain. Which of the following group scope he should use?

A. Universal
B. Domain local
C. Local
D. Global

31.                       Logical components of Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) :
a)    Domain controllers
b)    Read‑only domain controllers (RODC)
c)     Domains
d)    folder
32.                       What is FSMO :
a)    Flexible single master operations .
b)    Flexible single master output .
c)     Flexible source master operation.
d)    None.
33.                       Worm is program or algorithm that :
a)    Replicates itself automatically.
b)    Does not replicate itself.
c)     Does not infect computer programs.
d)    All
34.                       Application  that monitor activity with express permission :
a)    Spyware
b)    Adware
c)     Malware
d)    Spam
35.                       Outgoing mail server  :
a)    SMTP
b)    POP3
c)     IMAP
d)    All
36.                       Incoming mail servers are (choose two) :
a)    SMTP
b)    POP3
c)     IMAP
d)    exchange
37.                       What is FQDN 
a)    The DNS Tree structure.
b)    Active Directory replication method.
c)     The complete domain name.
d)    DNS servers outside of that network.
38.                       Forward Lookup Zones:
a)    Resolves names to IP addresses
b)    Resolves IP Addresses into name
c)     None
d)    All
39.                       A firewall is :
a)    The firewall is resistant to attacks
b)    The firewall is the only transit point between networks
c)     The firewall enforces the access control policy
d)    All
40.                       A Proxy Server is a computer program that :
a)    acts as an intermediary between a web browser and a web server
b)    To give users rapid access to popular web destinations
c)     to store frequently requested pages
d)    All
41.                       IPv4 Minimum packet size:
a)    576 bytes
b)    1280 bytes
c)     1024 bytes
d)    None
42.                       IPv6 Allocate __ bits for internal subnetting :
a)    45
b)    48
c)     16
d)    64
43.                       In RODC the changes to Active Directory objects are
a)    Possible
b)    Not possible
44.                       The data link layer consists of two sub-layers which are (choose2):
a)    Media Access Control (MAC)
b)    Logical Link Control (LLC)
c)     Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
d)    User Datagram Protocol (UDP)
45.                       Ethernet (IEEE 802.3) and Wireless networks (IEEE 802.11) are the commonly used ___ technologies
a)    LAN
b)    WAN
c)     MAN
d)    None
46.                       A dynamic disk does not have a partition table
a)    True
b)    False
47.                       You cannot convert Dynamic back to basic without erasing all the data
a)    True
b)    False
48.                       POST is used for testing, identifying, initialising the RAM, CPU, DMA controllers, and various components of the chipset.
a)    True
b)    False
49.                       User limit in Windows Server 2012 Essentials Edition  :
a)    25
b)    15
c)     30
d)    0
50.                       Windows Server 2012 Foundation Edition supports Active Directory Certificate Services
a)    True
b)    False